Would you explain ‘For one who speaks in a tongue speaks not to men but to God’ (1 Corinthians 14:2)?

This text is from a transcript of a talk by David Gooding, entitled ‘Conforming Our Spirits to the Spirit of God’ (2005).

In 1 Corinthians 14:2, I take Paul to be saying exactly what he says, so that's how I understand it. He's talking, we observe, of speaking in the church, and makes the point that, if there's no translator present, they must not speak in tongues because the rest are not edified by it, and edification is the indispensable requirement of speaking in the church. So, if there's no translator present, he speaks to himself and to God, but not to the church as a whole.