If speaking in tongues is one of the gifts of the Spirit, why is it that some people in certain Pentecostal churches speak in tongues and other Bible-believing churches don’t believe in this?

 

This text is from a transcript of a talk by David Gooding, entitled ‘Conforming our Spirits to the Spirit of God’ (2005).

The short answer is that some Christians believe that the gift of tongues is still available. Some go further than that, and they think that the gift of tongues ought to be used in the church. In the church, there is to be no speaking in tongues unless there is a translation given. And when it comes to desiring gifts, we are to seek the greater gifts.

For my part, that impresses me very strongly and has done for the last forty years. I say this with all Christian charity, I hope. I have not understood why thousands of people have been encouraged to seek tongues, when the Holy Spirit's directive is, 'But earnestly desire the higher gifts' (1 Corinthians 12:31), which he then explains in chapter 14 to be not tongues, but other gifts.

 
Previous
Previous

Would you explain ‘For one who speaks in a tongue speaks not to men but to God’ (1 Corinthians 14:2)?

Next
Next

In relation to 1 Corinthians 11, in what ways do men and women differ? Could you describe the characteristics of both sexes, particularly spiritually and psychologically?