When Paul spoke in tongues, was it different from Acts 2? Did he need an interpreter?

 

This text is from a transcript of a talk by David Gooding, entitled ‘Conforming our Spirits to the Spirit of God’ (2005).

I think the prime purpose for the use of tongues as given in the New Testament is such as was manifested on the day of Pentecost. The unconverted crowd could see that it was a miracle, because they could understand the language that was being spoken and were aware that the speakers did not themselves know that language. It was a self-evident miracle and a very powerful use of tongues. I don't say it cynically, but if you have the gift of tongues and can use it in that fashion, there's a big world out there, so use it as much as you can.

'But in the church,' says the Holy Spirit, 'what is its point?' It is useless in the church unless there is an interpreter, a translator. Then why use it? Listen to the exhortation, 'Seek the greater gifts,' and what he means by 'greater' is the Holy Spirit's own interpretation.

 
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When Acts 2:36 says ‘God has made him both Lord and Christ’, does that mean he was not always Lord?

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Would you explain ‘For one who speaks in a tongue speaks not to men but to God’ (1 Corinthians 14:2)?