How should ‘Jesus Christ is come in the flesh’ in 2 John 7 be translated? Does it refer to Christ’s future coming?

 

This text is from a letter written by David Gooding in 1994.

The phrase in 2 John 7, which you give as 'they do not confess that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh', could be translated 'they do not confess that Jesus Christ cometh in the flesh', or 'they do not confess Jesus Christ coming in the flesh', or 'they do not confess Jesus Christ is coming in the flesh'. The verb in the subordinate clause is a present participle in Greek; but, since the subordinate clause is probably to be understood as an indirect statement, it is open to these slightly different translations.

The other point that arises is that the verb 'to come' in Greek, even when it is used in the present tense, can carry either a present or a future meaning. The translation 'who do not acknowledge Jesus Christ as coming in the flesh'—which is that of the NIV—allows for this ambiguity. In John 4:25, 'I know that Messiah cometh', the verb is in the present infinitive. It means that the Messiah is destined to come. English has a similar usage when we say 'my friend is coming next Thursday', meaning that he is due to come next Thursday.

The fact that in 1 John 4:2 John uses a perfect participle, 'every spirit who confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh', suggests nonetheless that, when John uses the present participle in 2 John 7, it probably refers to Christ's future coming.

Your very sincerely in Christ,

 
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