Was Satan cast out of heaven at the Lord’s ascension, or is this a future event? And what is the basis of his casting out?

 

This text is from a letter written by David Gooding in 1991.

It is certainly true that different interpretations have been given of Satan's being cast out from heaven to earth, particularly in regard to the question of when this happened, or when will it happen.

It is difficult, if not impossible, to think that Satan's ejection from heaven occurred at our Lord's ascension. Ephesians 6:12ff indicates that we still have to wrestle against principalities and powers in heavenly places. The battle is not yet over.

Secondly, one of the elements in Satan's defeat, as given in Revelation 12:11, is that believers 'overcame him ... by the word of their testimony, and they loved not their lives unto the death.' But believers are still called upon to testify to the Lord, and some are still called upon to suffer a martyr's death for him. This, then, is part of the overcoming of Satan, and that overcoming is not complete yet.

Moreover, Satan still accuses the brethren, and walks about seeking whom he may devour; and we still have to withstand him. That victory is not yet complete either (see 1 Peter 5:8–9).

It is true also that Hebrews 9:23–28 tells us that the heavenly things themselves are cleansed by the sacrifice of Christ, and it is clear that in these verses the writer is using the analogy of the cleansing of the tabernacle that took place on the great Day of Atonement year by year in Old Testament days.

Here a few comments are in order:

  1. The earthly tabernacle in the Old Testament was defiled by being situated amidst all the uncleanness of the children of Israel (see Leviticus 16:16). Nowhere is there any thought there of Satan having access to that material tabernacle until it was cleansed. All believers now have access into the holiest of all in the heavenly tabernacle. Does Job 1:6–12 imply that, until the ascension of Christ, Satan had access into the immediate presence of God? And if it is argued that, no, he did not have access into the immediate presence of God, but he had access to the environs of the presence of God, and his presence there defiled the heavenly tabernacle, then are we to think that the sacrifice of Christ covered Satan's sins and the defilement he caused?

  2. Or again, if it is thought that Satan had to have access to the environs of the presence of God in order to accuse the brethren; but when Christ offered his sacrifice on our behalf, the grounds of Satan's accusations against us were demolished, and therefore he could no longer accuse us before God; why does Jude warn believers against speaking lightly about Satan and his hosts?

  3. Furthermore, it seems to me that it is important that we should notice that it is not said in Revelation 12:7–8 that it was the sacrifice of Christ that cast out Satan. But rather that 'there was war in heaven: Michael and his angels going forth to war with the dragon; and the dragon warred and his angels, and they prevailed not; neither was their place found any more in heaven'. Why do you think it is necessary for Michael and his angels to war against the devil and his angels?

  4. A similar situation is depicted for us in Daniel 10:13, and that passage strikes me as strongly resembling what Paul says in Ephesians 6:12ff. In other words, although the sacrifice of Christ has been complete for two thousand years, we still have to wrestle with the principalities and powers; and so, presumably, does Michael and his angels. The war between Michael and the devil is not yet over.

Finally, for the moment, I think it is helpful to compare Revelation 12:10 with Revelation 11:17. Certainly this latter passage is not talking about Calvary. It is talking about the end time, as is seen from Revelation 11:18: 'the time of the dead to be judged, and the time to give their reward to thy servants the prophets, and to the saints, and to them that fear thy name, the small and the great; and to destroy them that destroy the earth'. It is referring to the time to come when the Lord God, the Almighty, shall establish his kingdom on earth by power, and at the second coming of Christ. I presume that Revelation 12:10 is talking about the same time.

You ask, 'What is the cause, the legal cause, that cast Satan out from heaven?'. I think I should reply: what legal rights will the Lord have when he comes again to destroy the beast and false prophet, and to consign Satan to the abyss (see Revelation 19)? My reply would be: our Lord's moral—rather than legal—right is, of course, his sacrifice at Calvary (see Revelation 5). Our Lord has the moral right to come at any moment. Had he chosen to come, for instance, in ad 505, and to consign the devil to the abyss at that time, who could say that he did not have the moral right to do so?

The fact is that our Lord has not yet insisted on his moral right to judge the world, or to put Satan into the abyss. He is longsuffering towards us. But when the time of the end draws near, Satan will be expelled from heaven and allowed a short time on earth (see Revelation 12:12), in order personally to instigate the great and hideous rebellion against God through the beast and the false prophet. That will be man's crowning rebellion against God, but it will only last a very short time.

Now, I know I have not answered all your questions, but for the moment I submit these few remarks to your consideration, and may the Lord guide us all in our further understanding of his word.

With warmest greetings,

 
Previous
Previous

What does Galatians 3:13 mean?

Next
Next

Would God not receive more glory by saving through his prerogative, than man deciding to believe by his own initiative?