Isn’t it true that different translations and different Bibles make it difficult to convert a non-believer? In that instance what version do we use?

This text is from a transcript of a talk by David Gooding, entitled ‘Documentary Evidence, Textual Criticism and Translation’ (2007).

A very sensible and practical question! My own habit would be, if I am talking to an Orthodox Jew I would use a Jewish translation. They can be very useful. I said to one Jew of my acquaintance, 'Otto, do you pray for the dead? (I knew he did—it's in his Prayer Book.)

He said, 'Yes we do.'

'What do you pray for?'

'Well, it's a nice way of remembering people,' he said.

I said, 'Come off it, Otto, you do more than that!'

'Yes, we do. We pray that God will let them out of the bad place into the better place.'

I said, 'You are a mystery to me, Otto. I am an old Gentile and I have come to believe in God—not just any old god, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. And I like that Psalm of yours, 'I shall dwell in the house of the Lord forever'! I know what that means, Otto. I am absolutely certain I shall be in heaven at last. Why don't you believe it?'

All I am trying to say is, I try to use the translation that people know. If the person has always used the Authorised Version, use the Authorised Version. If the person doesn't know English very well and your only hope is using a very modern translation, I would use that; but within reason, because I believe God's word properly expounded can help all kinds of people. But don't confuse people by insisting on, say, NIV only, or KJV only. Judge who it is that you are talking to.